The CG PET 2027 Sample Paper can be prepared according to the latest available CG PET pattern. The official CG Vyapam PET syllabus currently specifies 150 questions for 150 marks, with 50 questions each from Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.

CG PET 2027 Sample Paper Pattern

SubjectQuestionsMarks
Physics5050
Chemistry5050
Mathematics5050
Total150150

The 2027 notification and official question paper are not yet available, so this should be treated as a practice/sample paper based on the latest available pattern, not an official CG PET 2027 paper. The CG Vyapam website currently lists PET Entrance Exam 2026 information.

Sample Questions

Section A – Physics

Q1. The SI unit of force is:

A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Pascal

Q2. The dimensional formula of velocity is:

A. [LT⁻¹]
B. [LT⁻²]
C. [MLT⁻¹]
D. [ML²T⁻²]

Q3. A body moving with uniform velocity has:

A. Constant acceleration
B. Zero acceleration
C. Increasing acceleration
D. Decreasing acceleration

Q4. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents:

A. Distance
B. Displacement
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum

Q5. Newton's third law is related to:

A. Inertia
B. Force and acceleration
C. Action and reaction
D. Gravitation

Q6. Work done by a force is zero when the angle between force and displacement is:

A. 0°
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 180°

Q7. The kinetic energy of a body is:

A. mv
B. ½mv²
C. mgh
D. Fd

Q8. The SI unit of power is:

A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Volt

Q9. Momentum is equal to:

A. Mass × acceleration
B. Mass × velocity
C. Force × distance
D. Mass × displacement

Q10. The value of acceleration due to gravity near Earth's surface is approximately:

A. 5.8 m/s²
B. 7.8 m/s²
C. 9.8 m/s²
D. 12.8 m/s²

Q11. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface is approximately:

A. 5.6 km/s
B. 9.8 km/s
C. 11.2 km/s
D. 15.6 km/s

Q12. The SI unit of pressure is:

A. Newton
B. Pascal
C. Joule
D. Dyne

Q13. According to Hooke's law, within the elastic limit:

A. Stress is inversely proportional to strain
B. Stress is proportional to strain
C. Stress is independent of strain
D. Strain is always zero

Q14. The frequency of a wave is 50 Hz. Its time period is:

A. 0.02 s
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.2 s
D. 2 s

Q15. Sound waves in air are:

A. Transverse electromagnetic waves
B. Longitudinal mechanical waves
C. Transverse mechanical waves
D. Electromagnetic waves

Q16. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:

A. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
B. 3 × 10⁷ m/s
C. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
D. 3 × 10⁹ m/s

Q17. The phenomenon responsible for the formation of a rainbow is mainly:

A. Reflection only
B. Dispersion of light
C. Diffraction only
D. Polarisation only

Q18. A convex lens is:

A. Thicker at the edges
B. Thicker at the centre
C. Uniformly thick
D. Opaque

Q19. The unit of focal length is:

A. Dioptre
B. Metre
C. Candela
D. Hertz

Q20. The power of a lens of focal length 0.5 m is:

A. 0.5 D
B. 1 D
C. 2 D
D. 5 D

Q21. Electric current is measured in:

A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Coulomb

Q22. Ohm's law is expressed as:

A. V = IR
B. P = VI
C. Q = It
D. W = Fs

Q23. The resistance of a conductor depends on:

A. Length
B. Area of cross-section
C. Resistivity
D. All of these

Q24. Two resistors of 2 Ω each connected in series have equivalent resistance:

A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
C. 4 Ω
D. 8 Ω

Q25. Two identical 4 Ω resistors connected in parallel have equivalent resistance:

A. 1 Ω
B. 2 Ω
C. 4 Ω
D. 8 Ω

Q26. Electrical energy consumed by a device is commonly measured in:

A. Kilowatt-hour
B. Watt
C. Ampere
D. Volt

Q27. A fuse is used to:

A. Increase voltage
B. Protect a circuit from excessive current
C. Increase resistance deliberately
D. Store electrical energy

Q28. The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor consists of:

A. Straight lines
B. Circular lines
C. Elliptical lines
D. Random lines

Q29. The SI unit of magnetic field is:

A. Weber
B. Tesla
C. Henry
D. Farad

Q30. Electromagnetic induction was discovered by:

A. Newton
B. Faraday
C. Maxwell
D. Rutherford

Q31. A transformer works on the principle of:

A. Electrolysis
B. Electromagnetic induction
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Nuclear fission

Q32. A transformer cannot operate directly with:

A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. High-frequency AC
D. Low-frequency AC

Q33. The charge of an electron is:

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Variable

Q34. The atomic nucleus contains:

A. Electrons only
B. Protons and neutrons
C. Neutrons and electrons
D. Protons and electrons

Q35. The photoelectric effect demonstrates the:

A. Wave nature only of light
B. Particle nature of light
C. Mechanical nature of light
D. Sound nature of light

Q36. The energy of a photon is:

A. E = mc²
B. E = hν
C. E = IR
D. E = Pt²

Q37. Half-life is associated with:

A. Radioactive decay
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Elasticity

Q38. Nuclear fission involves:

A. Joining of light nuclei
B. Splitting of a heavy nucleus
C. Emission of electrons only
D. Formation of molecules

Q39. Nuclear fusion is the main source of energy in:

A. Earth
B. The Sun
C. Moon
D. Oceans

Q40. A semiconductor commonly used in electronic devices is:

A. Copper
B. Silicon
C. Aluminium
D. Silver

Q41. A p-type semiconductor is formed by doping silicon with:

A. Pentavalent impurity
B. Trivalent impurity
C. Noble gas
D. Monovalent impurity

Q42. A diode primarily allows current to flow:

A. Equally in both directions
B. Mainly in one direction
C. Only at zero voltage
D. Never

Q43. The logic gate whose output is 1 only when both inputs are 1 is:

A. OR
B. NOT
C. AND
D. NOR

Q44. The unit of capacitance is:

A. Henry
B. Farad
C. Tesla
D. Weber

Q45. A capacitor stores energy in its:

A. Magnetic field
B. Electric field
C. Gravitational field
D. Nuclear field

Q46. The SI unit of frequency is:

A. Hertz
B. Tesla
C. Newton
D. Joule

Q47. Resonance occurs when the driving frequency equals the:

A. Amplitude
B. Natural frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Phase difference

Q48. The centre of mass of a uniform circular disc is located at:

A. Its circumference
B. Its centre
C. Any point outside it
D. Halfway to the circumference

Q49. The moment of inertia depends on:

A. Mass distribution
B. Shape
C. Axis of rotation
D. All of these

Q50. The principle of conservation of energy states that energy:

A. Can be created only
B. Can be destroyed only
C. Can neither be created nor destroyed, only transformed
D. Always decreases

Section B – Chemistry

Q51. The atomic number of carbon is:
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

Q52. The number of neutrons in carbon-14 is:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 14

Q53. Avogadro's number is approximately:
A. 6.022 × 10²³
B. 6.022 × 10²²
C. 3.011 × 10²³
D. 9.8 × 10²³

Q54. One mole of an ideal gas at STP occupies approximately:
A. 11.2 L
B. 22.4 L
C. 44.8 L
D. 2.24 L

Q55. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
A. 0
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14

Q56. Which is a strong acid?
A. CH₃COOH
B. HCl
C. H₂CO₃
D. HCN

Q57. Which is a strong base?
A. NH₄OH
B. NaOH
C. CH₃NH₂
D. H₂O

Q58. The oxidation state of oxygen in most compounds is:
A. +2
B. +1
C. −1
D. −2

Q59. The oxidation state of sodium in NaCl is:
A. −1
B. 0
C. +1
D. +2

Q60. The modern periodic table is arranged according to:
A. Atomic mass
B. Atomic number
C. Density
D. Valency only

Q61. Elements in the same group generally have similar:
A. Atomic masses
B. Chemical properties
C. Number of shells
D. Nuclear masses

Q62. The most electronegative element is:
A. Oxygen
B. Chlorine
C. Fluorine
D. Nitrogen

Q63. Noble gases are placed in:
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 17
D. Group 18

Q64. The bond formed by sharing electrons is:
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Hydrogen bond

Q65. NaCl primarily contains:
A. Covalent bonds
B. Ionic bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Hydrogen bonds

Q66. The shape of a methane molecule is:
A. Linear
B. Trigonal planar
C. Tetrahedral
D. Bent

Q67. The hybridisation of carbon in methane is:
A. sp
B. sp²
C. sp³
D. dsp²

Q68. Which molecule has a triple bond?
A. H₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. Cl₂

Q69. The catalyst used in the Haber process is mainly:
A. Nickel
B. Iron
C. Platinum
D. Copper

Q70. The Haber process is used to manufacture:
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Ammonia
C. Nitric acid
D. Methane

Q71. The Contact process is used for manufacturing:
A. H₂SO₄
B. HNO₃
C. NH₃
D. NaOH

Q72. A catalyst changes the:
A. Equilibrium constant
B. Activation energy
C. Products permanently
D. Atomic number

Q73. An exothermic reaction:
A. Absorbs heat
B. Releases heat
C. Has no energy change
D. Always requires sunlight

Q74. The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with:
A. Decrease in temperature
B. Increase in temperature
C. Removal of reactants
D. Decrease in concentration

Q75. The SI unit of molarity is:
A. mol L⁻¹
B. g L⁻¹ only
C. kg mol⁻¹
D. mol kg⁻¹

Q76. The molecular formula of water is:
A. H₂O
B. H₂O₂
C. HO₂
D. H₃O

Q77. Hydrogen peroxide has the formula:
A. H₂O
B. H₂O₂
C. HO
D. H₃O

Q78. The functional group of alcohols is:
A. −COOH
B. −CHO
C. −OH
D. −CO−

Q79. The functional group of carboxylic acids is:
A. −OH
B. −COOH
C. −NH₂
D. −CHO

Q80. The simplest alkane is:
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane

Q81. The general formula of alkanes is:
A. CₙH₂ₙ
B. CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
C. CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
D. CₙHₙ

Q82. Ethene contains:
A. A single C–C bond
B. A double C=C bond
C. A triple C≡C bond
D. No carbon-carbon bond

Q83. Benzene has the molecular formula:
A. C₆H₆
B. C₆H₁₂
C. C₆H₁₄
D. C₅H₆

Q84. The polymer formed from ethene is:
A. PVC
B. Polyethylene
C. Nylon-6,6
D. Bakelite

Q85. PVC is made from:
A. Ethene
B. Vinyl chloride
C. Styrene
D. Propene

Q86. Soap is generally a salt of:
A. Mineral acids
B. Higher fatty acids
C. Amino acids
D. Carbonic acid

Q87. Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin in sunlight?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B₁₂
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

Q88. Proteins are polymers of:
A. Glucose
B. Amino acids
C. Fatty acids
D. Nucleotides only

Q89. Glucose is a:
A. Monosaccharide
B. Disaccharide
C. Polysaccharide
D. Protein

Q90. Sucrose is composed of:
A. Glucose + glucose
B. Glucose + fructose
C. Fructose + fructose
D. Glucose + galactose

Q91. The main component of natural gas is:
A. Ethane
B. Methane
C. Propane
D. Butane

Q92. The major component of air is:
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen

Q93. The gas responsible for the green colour of chlorine gas is:
A. Cl₂
B. O₂
C. N₂
D. H₂

Q94. Which gas turns limewater milky?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen

Q95. The chemical formula of quicklime is:
A. CaCO₃
B. CaO
C. Ca(OH)₂
D. CaCl₂

Q96. Baking soda is:
A. Na₂CO₃
B. NaHCO₃
C. NaOH
D. NaCl

Q97. Washing soda is:
A. NaHCO₃
B. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O
C. NaOH
D. NaCl

Q98. Gypsum has the formula:
A. CaSO₄·2H₂O
B. CaCO₃
C. CaO
D. CaCl₂

Q99. Rust is mainly:
A. Copper oxide
B. Hydrated iron(III) oxide
C. Aluminium oxide
D. Zinc oxide

Q100. Electrolysis of water produces:
A. Nitrogen and oxygen
B. Hydrogen and oxygen
C. Hydrogen and nitrogen
D. Carbon dioxide and oxygen

Section C – Mathematics

Q101. The value of (2^5) is:
A. 10
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

Q102. If (x+7=15), then x is:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Q103. The roots of (x^2-5x+6=0) are:
A. 1, 6
B. 2, 3
C. −2, −3
D. 3, 4

Q104. The discriminant of (ax^2+bx+c=0) is:
A. b² + 4ac
B. b² − 4ac
C. 4ac − b²
D. a² − 4bc

Q105. The sum of the first 10 natural numbers is:
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60

Q106. The nth term of an arithmetic progression is:
A. a + nd
B. a + (n−1)d
C. ad + n
D. a(n+d)

Q107. The common ratio of the GP 2, 6, 18, 54 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Q108. (\log_{10}100) equals:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. 100

Q109. (\sin 30^\circ) is:
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. √2/2
D. √3/2

Q110. (\cos 60^\circ) is:
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. √2/2
D. 1

Q111. (\tan 45^\circ) is:
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. √3

Q112. The identity (\sin^2\theta+\cos^2\theta) equals:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. sin θ cos θ

Q113. The derivative of (x^3) is:
A. x²
B. 2x
C. 3x²
D. 3x

Q114. The derivative of sin x is:
A. −sin x
B. cos x
C. tan x
D. sec²x

Q115. The derivative of (e^x) is:
A. 1
B. x
C. eˣ
D. xeˣ

Q116. The derivative of (\ln x) is:
A. x
B. 1/x
C. ln x
D. eˣ

Q117. (\int x,dx) is:
A. x²
B. x²/2 + C
C. 2x + C
D. x + C

Q118. (\int 1/x,dx) is:
A. x
B. 1/x²
C. ln|x| + C
D. eˣ + C

Q119. The slope of the line (y=3x+5) is:
A. 3
B. 5
C. −3
D. −5

Q120. The distance between points ((0,0)) and ((3,4)) is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Q121. The midpoint of ((2,4)) and ((6,8)) is:
A. (4,6)
B. (3,5)
C. (8,12)
D. (2,2)

Q122. The equation of the x-axis is:
A. x = 0
B. y = 0
C. x = y
D. x + y = 0

Q123. The equation of a circle with centre at origin and radius r is:
A. x+y=r
B. x²+y²=r²
C. x²−y²=r²
D. xy=r²

Q124. The determinant of (\begin{pmatrix}a&b\c&d\end{pmatrix}) is:
A. ab−cd
B. ad−bc
C. ac−bd
D. a+b+c+d

Q125. A matrix having equal number of rows and columns is called:
A. Row matrix
B. Column matrix
C. Square matrix
D. Null matrix

Q126. The identity matrix of order 2 is:
A. (\begin{pmatrix}0&0\0&0\end{pmatrix})
B. (\begin{pmatrix}1&0\0&1\end{pmatrix})
C. (\begin{pmatrix}1&1\1&1\end{pmatrix})
D. (\begin{pmatrix}0&1\1&0\end{pmatrix})

Q127. If two events cannot occur simultaneously, they are:
A. Independent
B. Mutually exclusive
C. Equally likely
D. Certain

Q128. The probability of a certain event is:
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. −1

Q129. The probability of an impossible event is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. −1
D. 1/2

Q130. A fair coin is tossed once. Probability of getting a head is:
A. 0
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 1

Q131. A fair die is thrown once. Probability of getting 6 is:
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/6
D. 1/12

Q132. The mean of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 is:
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Q133. The median of 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 is:
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

Q134. The mode is the value that:
A. Is smallest
B. Is largest
C. Occurs most frequently
D. Occurs least frequently

Q135. If A = {1,2,3} and B = {3,4,5}, then A ∩ B is:
A. {1,2}
B. {3}
C. {4,5}
D. {1,2,3,4,5}

Q136. The number of subsets of a set containing n elements is:
A. n²
B. 2n
C. 2ⁿ
D. n!

Q137. (5!) is:
A. 20
B. 60
C. 100
D. 120

Q138. The number of ways of arranging 3 different objects is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Q139. ({5 \choose 2}) equals:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Q140. The vector (\hat{i}) represents:
A. Unit vector along x-axis
B. Unit vector along y-axis
C. Unit vector along z-axis
D. Zero vector

Q141. The magnitude of vector (3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}) is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Q142. The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is:
A. 1
B. −1
C. 0
D. Infinity

Q143. The cross product of two parallel vectors is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. −1
D. Equal to their sum

Q144. The order of the differential equation (\frac{dy}{dx}+y=0) is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Q145. If (f(x)=x^2), then (f(3)) is:
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Q146. The function (f(x)=1/x) is not defined at:
A. x=1
B. x=−1
C. x=0
D. x=2

Q147. The determinant of the identity matrix of order 2 is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. −1

Q148. The volume of a cube of side 3 cm is:
A. 9 cm³
B. 18 cm³
C. 27 cm³
D. 36 cm³

Q149. The area of a circle of radius r is:
A. 2πr
B. πr²
C. 2πr²
D. πr

Q150. The volume of a sphere of radius r is:
A. 4πr²
B. πr³
C. 4/3 πr³
D. 2/3 πr³

CG PET 2027 Answer Key

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1B31B61B91B121A
2A32B62C92B122B
3B33B63D93A123B
4C34B64B94C124B
5C35B65B95B125C
6C36B66C96B126B
7B37A67C97B127B
8C38B68C98A128C
9B39B69B99B129A
10C40B70B100B130C
11C41B71A101C131C
12B42B72B102C132B
13B43C73B103B133C
14A44B74B104B134C
15B45B75A105C135B
16C46A76A106B136C
17B47B77B107B137D
18B48B78C108B138B
19B49D79B109B139B
20C50C80A110B140A
21C51B81B111C141C
22A52C82B112B142C
23D53A83A113C143A
24C54B84B114B144B
25B55C85B115C145C
26A56B86B87D116B146C
27B57B88B117B147B
28B58D89A118C148C
29B59C90B119A149B
30B60B90B120C150C

Important Preparation Tips for CG PET 2027

  1. Complete the Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics syllabus systematically.
  2. Practise numerical problems regularly, especially in Physics and Mathematics.
  3. Solve previous-year CG PET question papers to understand question difficulty.
  4. Take full-length mock tests of 150 questions to improve speed.
  5. Maintain a formula and reaction notebook for quick revision.
  6. Revise weak chapters repeatedly instead of only studying new topics.
  7. Check the official CG Vyapam notification when the CG PET 2027 application and examination details are released.

FAQs

Q1. How many questions are there in CG PET?
The latest available examination scheme has 150 questions: 50 Physics, 50 Chemistry and 50 Mathematics.

Q2. How many marks is CG PET conducted for?
The latest available scheme is for 150 marks, with each subject carrying 50 marks.

Q3. Is this an official CG PET 2027 Sample Paper?
No. This is a practice paper created for CG PET 2027 preparation. The official 2027 question paper will be available only after CG Vyapam conducts the examination.

Q4. Which subjects should I prepare for CG PET?
The latest available CG PET scheme covers Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.

Q5. Where can I find the official CG PET syllabus?
Students should refer to the latest syllabus and notification published by CG Vyapam, particularly when the 2027 notification is released.

CG PET

The CG PET examination is organized by CG Vyapam, and detailed information about the Chhattisgarh Pre Engineering Test (CG PET) such as exam dates, application forms, and syllabus can be found on indcareer.com. CG PET is a state-level engineering entrance exam administered by the Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board. The primary objective of this exam is to facilitate admissions to various colleges in Chhattisgarh offering courses in BE, B.Tech, B.Tech Agriculture Engineering, B.Tech Food Tech, B.Tech Dairy Technology, and Diploma in Dairy Technology.

CG PET Sample Paper – An Overview

AspectsDetails
Name of ExamCG PET
Full FormChhattisgarh Pre Engineering Test
Study material HereQuestion Papers of CG PET
Similar ExamsEngineering Entrance Exams
Official Body for Exam and Its SyllabusCG Vyapam
Full Name of BodyChhattisgarh Professional Examination Board
Level of ExaminationState Level
States of Region Where Institutes Accepting Exam Scores AreChhattisgarh
Exam and Syllabus Official Websitevyapam.cgstate.gov.in
Courses Where Admission Is Through This ExamBE, B.Tech, B.Tech Agriculture Engineering, B.Tech Food Tech, B.Tech Dairy Technology, Diploma in Dairy Technology
Colleges Where Admission Is Through This ExamVarious colleges in Chhattisgarh
CG PET Question Papers – An Overview
CG PET